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Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013

• Published: January 15, 2013
• Languages: English, Simplified Chinese, German, French, Portuguese Brazil, Japanese
• Audiences: IT professionals
• Technology: Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
• Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE

Plan, install, configure, and manage transport (25%)
Install, configure, and manage the mailbox role (25%)
Plan, install, configure, and manage client access (25%)
Design and manage an Exchange infrastructure (25%)
Exam Code: 70-411
Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
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Microsoft 70-411 Questions and answers 235 Q&As
Updated: 12-30,2015
70-411 Latest Dumps Detail: 70-411 Questions and answers
Exam Code: 70-346
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
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70-346 Exam Prep Detail: 70-346 PDF VCE
Exam Code: 070-341
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
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NO.1 You create an Office 365 tenant.
You assign administrative roles to other users.
You hire a new user named User2.
User2 must NOT be able to change passwords for other users.
You need to assign an administrative role to User2.
Which role should you assign?
A. Delegate administrator
B. Service administrator
C. Global administrator
D. Password administrator
Answer: B

70-346 practice test   
Reference:
https://support.office.com/en-US/Article/Assigning-admin-roles-eac4d046-1afd-4f1a-
85fc8219c79e1504?ui=en-US&rs=en-US&ad=US#__choose_an_admin

NO.2 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must configure a trust between the on-premises Active Directory domain and the Office 365
environment by using Active Directory Federation Services.
You need to assign the correct certificate to the description of your on-premises server environment
below.
Which certificate types should you assign?
To answer, drag the appropriate certificate type to the correct test description.
Each certificate type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:

NO.3 HOTSPOT
You manage a team of three administrators for an organization that uses Office 365.
You must assign roles for each of the administrators as shown in the table.
You must assign the minimum permissions required to perform the assigned tasks.
You need to assign the correct role to each administrator.
Which administrative role should you configure for each user?
Select the correct answer from each list in the answer area.
Answer:

NO.4 A company named Fabrikam, Inc. is deploying an Office 365 tenant.
You install Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) on a server that runs Windows Server 2012.
The company's environment is described in the following table:
You must obtain a certificate from a certification authority and install it on the federation servers.
You need to specify the subject name for the certificate.
Which name should you specify?
A. serverl.fabrikam.com
B. fabrikam.com
C. server2.fabrikam.com
D. fs.fabnkam.com
Answer: D

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NO.5 A company has an Office 365 tenant that has an Enterprise E1 subscription.
Users currently sign in with credentials that include the contoso.com domain suffix.
The company is acquired by Fabrikam.
Users must now sign in with credentials that include the fabrikam.com domain suffix.
You need to ensure that all users sign in with the new domain name.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MsolUserPrincipalName
B. Set-MsolUserLicense
C. New-MsolUser
D. Convert-MsolFederatedUser
E. Set-LinkedUser
F. Redo-MsolProvisionUser
G. Set-MailUser
H. Set-MsolUser
Answer: A

70-346 study guide   
Explanation:
The Set-MsolUserPrincipalName cmdlet is used to change the User Principal Name (user ID) of a user.
This cmdlet can be used to move a user between a federated and standard domain, which will result
in their authentication type changing to that of the target domain.
The following command renames user1@contoso.com to CCole@contoso.com. Set-
MsolUserPrincipalName
-UserPrincipalName User1@contoso.com -NewUserPrincipalName CCole@contoso.com
Incorrect: Not A: The Set-MsolUser cmdlet is used to update a user object.
This cmdlet should be used for basic properties only.
Not B: The Redo-MsolProvisionUser cmdlet can be used to retry the provisioning of a user object in
Azure Active Directory when a previous attempt to create the user object resulted in a validation
error.
Not C: The Set-MsolUserLicense cmdlet can be used to adjust the licenses for a user.
Not E: The Convert-MsolFederatedUser cmdlet is used to update a user in a domain that was recently
converted from single sign-on (also known as identity federation) to standard authentication type.
A new password must be provided for the user.
Not F: Use the Set-MailUser cmdlet, used for on premises Exchange Server (not Office 365), to modify
the mail-related attributes of an existing user in Active Directory.
Not G: Use the Set-LinkedUser cmdlet to modify the properties of an existing linked user account.
The Outlook Live Directory Sync (OLSync) service account is a linked user.
Not H: The New-MsolUser cmdlet is used to create a new user in the Microsoft Azure Active Directory
(Microsoft Azure AD). In
Reference: Set-MsolUserPrincipalName
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dn194096.aspx

NO.6 Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. You need to create a group.
The group must have the following characteristics:
- Group properties are synchronized automatically.
- Group members have the ability to control which users can send email messages to the group.
What should you do?
A. Create a dynamic distribution group.
B. Create a distribution group and configure the Mail Flow Settings.
C. Create a distribution group and configure the Membership Approval settings.
D. Create a new role group.
Answer: C

70-346 Exam Cost   
Explanation:
Message Approval
Use this section to set options for moderating the group.
Moderators approve or reject messages sent to the group before they reach the group members.
Messages sent to this group have to be approved by a moderator This check box isn't selected by
default.
If you select this check box, incoming messages are reviewed by the group moderators before
delivery.
Group moderators can approve or reject incoming messages.
Group moderators
To add group moderators, click Add.
To remove a moderator, select the moderator, and then click Remove.
If you have selected "Messages sent to this group have to be approved by a moderator" and you
don't select a moderator, messages to the group are sent to the group owners for approval.
Senders who don't require message approval
To add people or groups that can bypass moderation for this group, click Add.
To remove a person or a group, select the item, and then click Remove.
Select moderation notifications
Use this section to set how users are notified about message approval.
- Notify all senders when their messages aren't approved. This is the default setting.
- Notify all senders, inside and outside your organization, when their message isn't approved.
- Notify senders in your organization only when their messages aren't approved. When you select this
option, only people or groups in your organization are notified when a message that they sent to the
group isn't approved by a moderator.
- Don't notify anyone when a message isn't approved. When you select this option, notifications
aren't sent to message senders whose messages aren't approved by the group moderators.
Reference: http://help.outlook.com/en-us/140/ms.exch.ecp.editdistributiongroup.aspx

NO.7 An organization plans to migrate to Office 365.
You need to estimate the post-migration network traffic.
Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
B. Lync 2013 Bandwidth Calculator
C. Microsoft Online Services Diagnostics and Logging (MOSDAL) Support Kit
D. Microsoft Network Monitor
Answer: B

70-346 exam   70-346 Free download   
Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh852542.aspx

NO.8 HOTSPOT
An organization prepares to migrate to Office 365.
The organization has one domain controller named NYC-DC1 and one server named NYC-DS that is
designated as the directory synchronization computer.
The organization has the following servers:
You plan to upgrade the servers to support directory synchronization.
You must upgrade each server to meet only the minimum requirements by using the least amount of
administrative effort.
You need to ensure that you can use the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool to
synchronize the local Active Directory with Office 365.
What should you do? Select the correct action from each list in the answer area.
Answer:

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Exam Code: TB0-123
Exam Name: TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks 5 Certification Exam
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Tibco TB0-123 Study Guide 120 Q&As
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TB0-123 Exam Prep Detail: TB0-123 Study Guide
NO.1 What is the purpose of the tokenize function?
A. to replace a specific character in a string
B. extract fields from a string
C. to concatenate two strings
D. to map undefined data to a defined data type
Answer: B

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NO.2 A process must handle over one hundred thousand records in a file, one at a time. Then a
service must return each record as either found or not found. Lastly, the process must record how
many records were found and not found. Which type of variable is most appropriate for this
implementation?
A. Job Shared Variable
B. Process Variable
C. Shared Variable
D. Global Variable
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Retrieve Resources activity can retrieve which resources?
A. WSDL, WSIL, and XSD
B. XSD, XSLT and XML
C. JAR, XSD and WSDL
D. WSDL, WSIL and ZIP
Answer: A

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NO.4 For a Java class specified in an XML to Java Activity, which two characteristics are required?
(Choose two.)
A. It must implement Runnable Interface.
B. It must have public methods for retrieving all data members.
C. It must be serializable.
D. It must have a public default constructor.
Answer: C,D

TB0-123 Questions and answers   TB0-123 questions   

NO.5 Process A has a Timer. Process B has a JMS Queue Receiver. Process C has a JMS Topic
Subscriber. These processes are to be deployed on two machines and configured to operate in fault-
tolerant and load-balanced mode. Which two steps should you take to achieve this configuration?
(Choose two.)
A. bundle the two JMS-based starters in one EAR file and deploy it twice
B. put the JMS Queue Receiver in its own EAR and deploy it twice
C. bundle the JMS Topic Subscriber and Timer in one EAR file and deploy it in fault-tolerant mode
D. bundle the Timer and the JMS Queue Receiver in one EAR file and deploy it in fault-tolerant mode
E. put the Timer in its own EAR and deploy it in fault-tolerant mode
F. put the JMS Topic Subscriber in its own EAR file and deploy it twice
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 How can you remove all deployed process files from a domain before using it for testing?
A. manually delete deployed files and clean the OS registry
B. use the Administrator undeploy the process and delete the files
C. use the Domain Utility to undeploy the application
D. uninstall and reinstall the Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Which activity will the process engine transfer to if the PollReturnedStock activity gets a return
message first?
A. ProcessOrder
B. Timeout
C. CancelOrder
D. IncomingOrder
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are two places the domain properties can be found? (Choose two.)
A. TIBCO_HOME/domain
B. TIBCO_HOME/tra/domain
C. TIBCO_HOME/repository
D. TIBCO_HOME/administrator/domain
E. TIBCO_HOME/designer/domain
Answer: B,D

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NO.1 What is the blacklist default time?
A. 30 seconds
B. No default time, it must be done manually
C. 3600 seconds
D. 1800 seconds
E. 1 day
Answer: C

ACMP_6.4 Test Questions   ACMP_6.4 exam dumps   
Explanation:
2-2 - Roles

NO.2 Which of the following are NOT valid RAP forwarding modes (Choose two)?
A. Split-Tunnel
B. Bridge
C. Tunnel
D. Standard
E. Backup
Answer: D,E

ACMP_6.4 test answers   ACMP_6.4 Free Demo   

NO.3 A client attaches to a secure jack interface set to untrusted. But when the client tries to access
the captive portal page, the following message appears, "Web Authentication is not enabled." What
might be wrong?
A. The controller port needs to be set to trusted.
B. A Captive Portal profile needs to be assigned to the initial role.
C. A "aaa" profile needs to be selected on the Wired Access page.
D. The client has the browser provisioned with proxy settings.
E. Web Authentication cannot be used in this way.
Answer: B

ACMP_6.4 test answers   
Explanation:
6-2 - Aruba Platform

NO.4 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Aruba Campus APs must be physically attached to the same Layer 3 switch.
B. Aruba Campus APs can be connected directly to the public internet.
C. Aruba Campus APs must be physically attached to the Aruba Controller.
D. Aruba Campus APs can be in different subnets from the Controller.
E. Aruba Campus APs must be in the same broadcast domain as the Controller.
Answer: D

ACMP_6.4 test questions   

NO.5 A controller is provisioned in L3 Mode for Wireless Users. What must be configured on the
controller to enable DHCP requests to an external DHCP server?
A. the subnet address of the DHCP server
B. the IP address of the DNS server
C. an IP helper command
D. the IP address of the APs
E. the DHCP server IPSEC Key
Answer: C

NO.6 A company purchased an indoor mesh deployment using the 7005 controller and the AP 115
models, where 5 APs will be deployed on a floor to provide wireless internet access for users. Users
may open VPN tunnels using software clients over the wireless network to a 3rd party VPN
concentrator overseas. The company wants to limit wireless user access to TCP traffic locally and VPN
traffic overseas.
In addition to the base AOS, which licenses will be necessary for this deployment?
A. PEF-NG, PEF-V
B. AP Capacity, PEF-NG, VPN
C. AP Capacity, PEF-NG
D. VPN, PEF-NG
E. AP Capacity
Answer: C

ACMP_6.4 VCE Dumps   
Explanation:
7-4 - Location

NO.7 A university, has 2 departments. Department 1 has its own mobility domain with one controller.
Department 2 has multiple controllers configured in a second domain. The university is planning on
offering a new application and needs users to be able to roam between both mobility domains.
What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Create a new domain between a department 1 controller and one of the department 2 controllers
B. This cannot be accomplished
C. The IP subnets of all controllers need to be configured to match
D. Merge the controllers into the same mobility domain
E. The 2 existing domains should be left as they are. A 3rd mobility domain should then be created
and all 3 controllers need to be added to it
Answer: D

ACMP_6.4 Exam Cost   
Explanation:
4-11 - Wired Access Control In the above diagram, the system shows two Aruba access points and a
wired user.

NO.8 Which of the following describes a Remote AP provisioned in "Split-Tunnel" Forwarding mode?.
A. The user role must have a "Permit" statement in order to locally bridge the traffic.
B. The user role must have a "route src-nat" statement to locally bridge the traffic.
C. All data and control traffic goes to the controller unsecured.
D. The RAP uses PAPI to send data traffic to the controller.
E. Local user traffic first goes to the controller and is then spilt back to the local network.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which statement about looping in sequences is TRUE?
A. Numeric loops must increment by one unless you supply a parameter
B. The current loop counter value can be passed to the stages in the loop
C. The compiler will insert an End Loop as the last stage in the sequence if one is omitted
D. The Start Loop stage only supports numeric loops
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about real time job design is TRUE?
A. A DataStage job must have an ISD Input stage, but an ISD Output stage is not required.
B. The Information Services Director server starts job instances on one or more DataStage servers for
load balancing and scalability.
C. A non-Multiple Instance DataStage job can be activated for ISD service.
D. DSJobInvocationId is not required for the target sequential file.
Answer: B

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Reference:
https://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.5.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.infoservdir.us
er.doc/topics/c_isd_user_ds_qs_job_topologies.html(See 2nd paragraph).

NO.3 Which partitioning method requires a key?
A. Entire
B. Same
C. Random
D. Range
Answer: B

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Reference:
https://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.parjob.dev
.doc/topics/r_deeref_Partitioning_Tab_difference_stage.html(third para)

NO.4 Which of the following locations will allow you to obtain a job's runtime logs? (Choose two.)
A. Operations Console
B. Performance Monitor
C. ISManager
D. Designer
E. Workload Manager
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 The APT_SubProcessOperator is used for what purpose?
A. It allows you to incorporate a third-party executable into the framework
B. It allows you to incorporatecomposite operators, which contain more than one operator
C. It provides the capability to break predefined operatorsinto sub processes
D. It provides the capability to define custom operators at the sub process level
Answer: A
Reference:
https://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_11.3.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.pxop.dev.
doc/topics/creatingopers.html

NO.6 Parallel job column definitions have an SQL type associated with them. Which of the following is
TRUE?
A. The SQL type is mapped to an underlying data type that the parallel job data set understands
B. The SQL type is what the parallel job data set understands
C. Use the Parallel tab of the Edit Column Meta Data dialog box to view the SQL type
D. Use the SQL type when specifying a schema via a file
Answer: C

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Reference:
https://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZJPZ_9.1.0/com.ibm.swg.im.iis.ds.parjob.dev.
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NO.1 In the SAP HANA studio, to which of the following does the loading status "partially" refer?
A. To a row store table that is loaded in delta storage
B. To a column store table that is loaded in delta storage
C. To a column store table of which only some columns are loaded
D. To a row store table of which only some rows are loaded
Answer: C

C-HANATEC151 Exam Tests   

NO.2 Which of the following can decrease the startup time of an SAP HANA system after a reboot?
A. Reducing the size of the row-based tables
B. Reducing the size of the transactional data records
C. Reducing the number of column tables in the database
D. Reducing the number of fields in the master data
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following URLs do you define for Software Update Manager?
A. http://:8444/studio_repository/
B. http://:8443/studio_repository/
C. https://<host>:8444/studio_repository/
D. https://<host>:8443/studio_repository/
Answer: D

C-HANATEC151 test answers   

NO.4 Which of the following situations can trigger a delta merge?
A. An SQL statement must read merged data.
B. The memory consumption of the delta storage exceeds a limit.
C. The number of records in the main storage exceeds a limit.
D. A pre-defined time of day has arrived.
Answer: B

C-HANATEC151 Actual Test   

NO.5 You are using the Change and Transport System (CTS) with SAP HANA.
When is the transport strategy determined?
A. When the export system is configured in CTS
B. When the connection to CTS is configured in SAP HANA studio
C. When the objects are attached to a transport request in the SAP HANA studio
D. When the SAP HANA application type is configured in CTS
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following update scenarios can be selected for execution in the SAP HANA lifecycle
manager?
A. Update SAP HANA lifecycle manager (HLM)
B. Update the SAP HANA studio on local machines
C. Update SAP HANA replication technologies components
D. Apply support package stacks
Answer: A,D

C-HANATEC151 Exam Dumps   C-HANATEC151 test answers   

NO.7 Which of the following can you use to analyze an expensive SQL statement?
A. The plan explanation
B. The plan visualizer
C. The hdbcons tool
D. The performance trace view
Answer: A,B

C-HANATEC151 test   

NO.8 You are replicating data in real-time from a source system to SAP HANA using System
Landscape Transformation (SLT).
The source system had to be restored using a point-intime recovery to an earlier point in time.
The systems are now out of sync.
How can you synchronize the systems again?
A. Restart the master job using transaction LTR in the SLT system
B. Select "Stop Replication" and "Replicate" in the Data Provisioning dialog
C. Run the hdbnsutil program on the command line
D. Select "Suspend" and "Resume" in the Data Provisioning dialog
Answer: B

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_HANATEC142 SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP HANA (Edition 2014)

Solution: SAP HANA
Delivery Methods: Certification
Duration: 180
Level: Associate
Exam: - 80 questions, PDF Link, Cut Score 57
Languages: English, Japanese

Monitoring of SAP HANA > 12%
Operation of SAP HANA > 12%
Security and authorization > 12%
SAP HANA Installation 8% - 12%
Backup & recovery 8% - 12%
System architecture 8% - 12%
Troubleshooting of SAP HANA 8% - 12%
High availability & disaster tolerance < 8%
Data Provisioning < 8%
Database Migration to SAP HANA < 8%
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Exam Code: ICBRR
Exam Name: International Certificate in Banking Risk and Regulation (ICBRR)
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GARP ICBRR Test Questions 342 Q&As
Updated: 12-30,2015
ICBRR Real Questions Detail: ICBRR Test Questions
NO.1 Which one of the four following non-statistical risk measures are typically not used to quantify
market risk?
A. Net closed positions
B. Basis point values
C. Option sensitivities
D. Convexity
Answer: A

ICBRR Training Materials   

NO.2 A risk associate is trying to determine the required risk-adjusted rate of return on a stock using
the Capital Asset Pricing Model. Which of the following equations should she use to calculate the
required return?
A. Required return = risk-free return + beta x (1 - market risk)
B. Required return = (1-risk free return) + beta x market risk
C. Required return = risk-free return + beta x market risk
D. Required return = risk-free return + 1/beta x market risk
Answer: C

ICBRR Exam Cram   

NO.3 A credit risk analyst is evaluating factors that quantify credit risk exposures. The risk that the
borrower would fail to make full and timely repayments of its financial obligations over a given time
horizon typically refers to:
A. Duration of default.
B. Probability of default.
C. Loss given default.
D. Exposure at default.
Answer: B

NO.4 Which one of the following four variables of the Black-Scholes model is typically NOT known at
a point in time?
A. The time to maturity
B. The underlying interest rates
C. The future volatility of the exchange rates
D. The underlying relevant exchange rates
Answer: C

ICBRR exam prep   

NO.5 Which one of the following four statements regarding counterparty credit risk is INCORRECT?
A. The exposure at default is variable due to fluctuations in swap valuations.
B. Dynamic collateral provisions often increase counterparty risk considerably.
C. The exposure at default can be negatively correlated to probability of default.
D. Counterparty credit risk refers to the inability to realize gains in a contract with a counterparty due
to its default.
Answer: A

ICBRR exam prep   ICBRR Test Questions   

NO.6 Which one of the following four regulatory drivers for operational risk management includes
risk and control requirements for financial statements in the United States?
A. Basel II Accord
B. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act
C. Solvency II
D. The Markets in Financial Instruments Directive
Answer: B

ICBRR test   

NO.7 A risk analyst at EtaBank wants to estimate the risk exposure in a leveraged position in
Collateralized Debt Obligations. These particular CDOs can be used in a repurchase transaction at a
20% haircut. If the VaR on a $100 unleveraged position is estimated to be $30, what is the VaR for the
final, fully leveraged position?
A. $50
B. $20
C. $100
D. $150
Answer: D

ICBRR exam prep   ICBRR study guide   

NO.8 How could a bank's hedging activities with futures contracts expose it to liquidity risk?
A. Prices may move such that a loss results on the hedge.
B. The futures hedge may not work due to the widening of basis which could result in a loss for the
bank.
C. The bank could get exposed to liquidity risk since futures trade on an exchange.
D. Since futures require margins which are settled every day, the bank could find itself scrambling for
funds.
Answer: D

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International Certificate in Banking Risk and Regulation
                 Integrated Risk Management
Section 1: Interest Rate Risk in the Banking Book
 The Role of the Treasury
 Treasury Risk
 Asset and Liability Management Activities
 Asset and Liability Management (ALM) Risks
 NII Risk in the Banking Book
 Equity Risk in the Banking Book
 Conclusions
 Summary
Section 2: Liquidity Risk in the Banking Book
 Introduction to Liquidity Risk
 Liquidity Risk Measurement
 Liquidity Risk Management
 Risk Reporting
 Conclusions
Section 3: Bank Capital Management
 Types of Capital
 Computing Economic Capital
 Components of Capital
 Risk and Return for Financial Instruments
 Risk-based Performance Measurement
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NO.1 John is attempting to use Handoff with his recently updated iPhone and Mac. It is not pairing
successfully. He just added home networking equipment to improve signal range. What
troubleshooting step should Jhon try first?
A. Reset Network Settings on iPhone.
B. Verify that both devices are connected to the same Wi-Fi network.
C. Verify that iPhone Cellular Calls are turned on in System Preferences > Network.
D. Verify that both devices are connected to a Wi-Fi network using WPA2 security.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A MacBook Pro with OS X installed is unresponsive after login. Your customer would like to
search online Apple Support articles about this issue. How can she quickly accomplish this task?
A. She must first install OS X on an external disk, then use Safari to search Apple Support articles.
B. Startup from OS X Recovery and choose the Get Help Online option.
C. Startup from an OS X Install DVD and choose the Get Help Online option
D. In order to use Safari, the customer will have to restore the hard disk from a Time backup.
Answer: D

9L0-066 Braindumps test answers   
Reference: https://support.apple.com/en-us/HT201314

NO.3 Which of the following are features of OS X designed to enhance the security and privacy of
user content? SELECT THREE,
A. Firewall
B. Safe Boot
C. Terminal
D. Console
E. FileVault2
F. Boot Camp 5
G. Gatekeeper
Answer: A,E,G

9L0-066 Braindumps Dumps PDF   9L0-066 Braindumps Exam Cost   
Reference: https://www.apple.com/osx/what-is/security/

NO.4 Wireless Diagnostics incorporates Monitor Mode. Which of the following customer scenarios
would Monitor Mode help with the most?
A. A customer will intermittently have a Wi-Fi connection drop. The customer cannot narrow down
any specific time that it happens.
B. A customer is having trouble sending and receiving Mail on a company wireless network.
C. A customer cannot connect to any password-protected wireless networks.
D. A customer is experiencing slow speeds on a specific public Wi-Fi connection.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Use Monitor mode for intermittent issues, such as unexpectedly dropped connections and auto-join
issues. When an issue is detected, Monitor mode will automatically stop, indicate it's detected an
issue, and collect information about what occurred. Information will be saved to the desktop as part
of the Wireless Diagnostics report, so that you may share it with a network specialist.
Reference: https://support.apple.com/en-ap/HT202663

NO.5 Sarah cannot remember the iCIoud security code associated with iCloud or have access to any
other devices with iCIoud Keychain enabled. What can Sarah do next?
A. Change the iCIoud password to create a new iCIoud security code.
B. Turn iCIoud Keychain off and on to create a new iCIoud security code.
C. Create a new iCIoud Keychain on iCloud.com.
D. Reset the iCIoud Keychain because Apple cannot recover a lost code.
Answer: A

9L0-066 Braindumps braindump   
Reference: https://support.apple.com/en-ap/HT203783

NO.6 Angela is having trouble with fonts installed in her user account. Where are these fonts
located?
A. -/Library/Fonts
B. /Library/Fonts
C. /Users/Fonts
D. /System/Library/Fonts
Answer: D

9L0-066 Braindumps test questions   
Reference: https://support.apple.com/kb/PH18919?locale=en_US

NO.7 Why is it important to use the Globally Unique Identifier (GUID) partition scheme on an Intel-
based Mac? SELECT TWO.
A. An Intel-based Mac will not start up without the GUID partition map.
B. Master Boot Record (MBR) requires a GUID partition map.
C. Any of the partition schemes provided by Disk Utility will work.
D. The GUID partition scheme contains the necessary standard apps for OS X.
E. You should not use GUI Apple Partition Map (APM) is the default partition map for Intel-based
Macs.
F. Firmware updates for Intel-based Macs require a GUID partition scheme.
Answer: D,F


Reference: https://support.apple.com/en-us/HT201723

NO.8 Francine changed Internet service providers and just set up the equipment in the home. She is
calling you because she is unable to connect to the Internet from her iMac (Late 2013). You probe
further to find out that her roommate is able to connect to the Internet using a PC and Francine is
able to connect using he iPad 2. Which of the following troubleshooting tools or techniques would
you recommend to Francine to help her further diagnose the networking issue with the iMac?
A. Restart the iMac and reset NVRAM.
B. Open the Network pane of System Preferences and click Assist Me.
C. Open System Information to verify that the Wi-Fi card is detected.
D. Restart from the Recovery System and run Network Utility.
Answer: B

9L0-066 Braindumps Exam Prep   
Reference: https://support.apple.com/en-us/HT202222


9L0-066 Basics
The exam is open resource. This means you may use resources such as Apple Service Articles, AppleCare Service Training in ATLAS, and the Apple public support site to answer the questions and pass the exam.
GSX access is recommended but not required in order to pass this exam. Test takers will need to use Apple public support articles listed in the Learning Resources sections of the training courses in ATLAS to answer some of the exam items.
This exam has 65 scored items and you have two hours to complete it. A passing score is 80%.
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Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server

• Published: June 11, 2012
• Languages: English, French, German, Japanese, Russian, Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Chinese (Simplified)
• Audiences: IT professionals
• Technology: Microsoft SQL Server
• Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE

Plan business intelligence (BI) infrastructure (15–20%)
Design BI infrastructure (15–20%)
Design a reporting solution (20–25%)
Design BI data models (30–35%)
Design an ETL solution (10–15%)
Instructor-led training
Exam prep videos
NO.1 You are developing the database schema for a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) BI Semantic
Model (BISM). The BISM will be based on the schema displayed in the following graphic.
You have the following requirements:
- Ensure that queries of the data model correctly display average student age by class.
- Ensure that the solution supports role-based security and partitions.
- Minimize development effort.
You need to design the data model.
What should you do? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. Create a tabular project and define measures. Create partitions in SQL Server Data Tools (SSDT).
B. Create a tabular project and define calculated columns. Create partitions in SQL Server
Management Studio (SSMS).
C. Create a multidimensional project and define measures and a many-to-many dimensional
relationship. Create partitions in SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS).
D. Create a multidimensional project and define measures and a reference relationship. Create
partitions in SQL Server Data Tools (SSDT).
Answer: C

070-467 exam prep   070-467 exam dumps   

NO.2 You need to create the Sales Reporting shared SSRS data source.
Which SSRS data connection type should you use?
A. OLE DB
B. Microsoft SQL Server
C. OData
D. ODBC
Answer: B

070-467 pdf   070-467 pdf   

NO.3 DRAG DROP
You need to configure the attribute relationship types for the Salesperson dimension.
Which configuration should you use?
To answer, drag the appropriate pair of attributes and attribute relationships from the list to the
correct location or locations in the answer area.
(Answer choices may be used once, more than once, or not all.)
Answer:

NO.4 You need to select an appropriate tool for creating the Regional Sales report.
Which tools or tools should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.)
A. Power View, using a table configured for vertical multiples
B. Excel 2010, using a PivotTable
C. Power View, using a table configured for horizontal multiples
D. Report Builder, using a Matrix
Answer: B,D

070-467 dumps   

NO.5 You need to grant appropriate permissions to the SSISOwners SQL Server login.
What should you do?
A. Map the login to the SSISDB database. Assign the user to the db_ssisadmin role.
B. Map the login to the msdb database. Assign the user to the db_ssisadmin role.
C. Map the login to the msdb database. Assign the user to the ssis_admin role.
D. Map the login to the SSISDB database. Assign the user to the ssis_admin role.
E. Map the login to the SSISDB database. Assign the user to the db_owner role.
F. Map the login to the msdb database. Assign the user to the db_owner role.
Answer: A

070-467 test   

NO.6 You need to select an appropriate tool for creating the Regional Sales report.
Which tool or tools should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.)
A. Excel 2010, using the CUBE functions
B. Excel 2010, using a PivotTable
C. Power View, using a Matrix
D. Report Builder, using a Matrix
Answer: B,C,D

070-467 dumps torrent   
Explanation:
B: Working with a matrix in Power View A matrix is a type of visualization that is similar to a table in
that it is made up of rows and columns. However, a matrix can be collapsed and expanded by rows
and/or columns. If it contains a hierarchy, you can drill down/drill up.
C: Using an Excel Pivot Table, connecting to the Cube, will give you the option to drill down the cube.
Using conditional formatting you can highlight specific value ranges.
D: Matrices provide functionality similar to crosstabs and pivot tables. At run time, as the report data
and data regions are combined, a matrix grows horizontally and vertically on the page. Values in
matrix cells display aggregate values scoped to the intersection of the row and column groups to
which the cell belongs. You can format the rows and columns to highlight the data you want to
emphasize. You can also include drilldown toggles that initially hide detail data; the user can then
click the toggles to display more or less detail as needed.
* From scenario: Management has requested a new report named Regional Sales. This report must
be based on the Sales cube and must allow users to filter by a specific year and present a grid with
every region on the columns and the Products hierarchy on the rows. The hierarchy must initially be
collapsed and allow the user to drill down through the hierarchy to analyze sales. Additionally, sales
values that are less than $5000 must be highlighted in red.

NO.7 You need to create the calculation for SalespersonName.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Create a computed column in the data warehouse's DimSalesperson table. Include the column in
the Sales Reporting model's Salesperson table.
B. Add a calculated column to the Sales Reporting model's Salesperson table by using the Data
Analysis Expressions (DAX) language CONCATENATE function.
C. Modify the data warehouse's DimSalesperson table and add a new column. Use an UPDATE
statement to populate the new column with values. Update the SSIS package developed to populate
the data warehouse's DimSalesperson table to use a Derived Column transformation to produce the
calculation.
D. Configure the Sales Reporting model's Salesperson table properties to be based on a query. Define
a derived column in the query.
E. Add a calculated column to the Sales Reporting model's Salesperson table by using the Data
Analysis Expressions (DAX) language ADDCOLUMNS function.
F. Create a view in the data warehouse that defines a derived column based on the DimSalesperson
table. Base the Sales Reporting model's Salesperson table on the view. Include the column in the
Sales Reporting model's Salesperson table.
Answer: C,F

070-467 test questions   

NO.8 You need to configure package execution logging to meet the requirements. What should you
do?
A. Configure logging in each ETL package to log the OnError, OnInformation, and Diagnostic events.
B. Set the SSIS catalog's Server-wide Default Logging Level property to Verbose.
C. Set the SSIS catalog's Server-wide Default Logging Level property to Basic.
D. Set the SSIS catalog's Server-wide Default Logging Level property to Performance.
E. Configure logging in each ETL package to log the OnError, OnPreExecute, and OnPostExecute
events.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-467
Exam Name: Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
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NO.1 Which of the following services are included at no additional cost with the use of the AWS
platform? Choose 2 answers
A. Simple Storage Service
B. Simple Workflow Service
C. Elastic Compute Cloud
D. CloudFormation
E. Elastic Load Balancing
F. Auto Scaling
Answer: D,F



NO.2 What is the maximum number of S3 Buckets available per AWS account?
A. 100 per region
B. 500 per account
C. 100 per account
D. there is no limit
E. 100 per IAM user
Answer: A

AWS-Developer Exam Prep Test Questions   AWS-Developer Exam Prep exam dumps   

NO.3 How can software determine the public and private IP addresses of the Amazon EC2 instance
that it is running on?
A. Query the local instance metadata.
B. Query the local instance userdata.
C. Use ipconfig or ifconfig command.
D. Query the appropriate Amazon CloudWatch metric.
Answer: A



NO.4 Which features can be used to restrict access to data in S3? Choose 2 answers
A. Set an S3 ACL on the bucket or the object.
B. Use S3 Virtual Hosting
C. Enable IAM Identity Federation.
D. Create a CloudFront distribution for the bucket
E. Set an S3 Bucket policy.
Answer: A,E

AWS-Developer Exam Prep Test Answers   AWS-Developer Exam Prep   

NO.5 What item operation allows the retrieval of multiple items from a DynamoDB table in a single
API call?
A. GetItem
B. GetMultipleItems
C. BatchGetItem
D. GetItemRange
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is one key difference between an Amazon EBS-backed and an instance-store backed
instance?
A. Amazon EBS-backed instances can be stopped and restarted
B. Virtual Private Cloud requires EBS backed instances
C. Auto scaling requires using Amazon EBS-backed instances.
D. Instance-store backed instances can be stopped and restarted.
Answer: A

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NO.1 What should law enforcement provide when asking an institution to keep an account open?
A. A written request with an explanation of the scope of the investigation
B. An explanation of the underlying conduct that is being investigated
C. An in-person visit by an investigating official to explain the reasons why the account mustremain
open
D. A written request on government agency letterhead with the appropriate signature
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which activity is most likely to facilitate money laundering through on-line systems with
inadequate controls?
A. Providing continuous worldwide access
B. Conducting anonymous transactions
C. Conducting a large volume of transactions
D. Conducting large value transactions
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer comes into the bank and appears to be ill-at-ease waiting in the teller line. When
the customer gets to the teller, he become exceedingly nervous and asks for a large cashier's check to
be cashed and disbursed to him in $100 bills.
What should the teller do after completing the transaction?
A. File a SAR on the customer
B. Confer with the bank' s account going forward
C. File a CTR on the customer by the end of the day
D. Monitor the customer's account going forward
Answer: A

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NO.4 What describes the Black Market Peso Exchange money laundering method?
A. An undercover technique to identify politically exposed persons who may assist moneylaunderers
B. A method used to smuggle dollars or pesos across that border from the U.S. to Mexico, and
viceversa
C. The best known money laundering method used by known terrorists
D. A method primarily used by narcotics traffickers to transfer value back to the source country
Answer: D

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NO.5 According to the Financial Action Task Force 40 Recommendations, simplified customer due
diligence or reduced measures could be acceptable for which of the following types of products or
transactions?
1.Life insurance policies where the annual premium is no more than USD/EUR 1,000 or a single
premium of no more than USD/EUR 2,500.
2.Insurance policies for pension schemes if there is no surrender clause and the policy cannot be
used as collateral.
3.A ptfiisiui i Ll idL pr uviJcfb lelir emei it bei lefils Lu employees.
4.Trusts where the settlor, trustee and beneficiaries are identified and the shares are in bearer
form.
A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only
Answer: C

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NO.6 A profitable commercial customer who operates an import-export business has multiple
accounts with the same institution at branches m different locations. The customer receives funds
from a jurisdiction perceived as highly corrupt according to Transparency International ratings. The
customer makes frequent transfers among the accounts and prefers to manage the accounts
separately. What should the institution do to mitigate the risk associated with these accounts?
A. File a suspicious transaction report
B. Conduct a trade-pnce manipulation analysis
C. Develop a system to monitor all the activity
D. Diminish the importance of the subjective Transparency International rating
Answer: A



NO.7 A compliance officer is looking to update an institution's private bank procedures. What should
be included as recommended by the Wolfsberg AML Principles on Private Banking?
A. Review of client files annually if there are unusual transactions
B. Dedicated automated AML monitoring of client activity
C. Approval of Politically Exposed Persons (PEPs) by at least one person other than the
relationshipmanager
D. The institution's senior management has primary responsibility for the relationship
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are three factors a financial institution should examine with regard to a new customer
who is opening up a new account? Choose 3 answers
A. The country or location where the customer is from or does business
B. The legal structure of the customer's business
C. The type and size of the business the customer runs
D. The previous financial institutions where the customer has banked
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: CAMS Exam PDF
Exam Name: Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialists
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ACAMS CAMS Exam PDF Braindumps 137 Q&As
Updated: 12-24,2015
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ACAMS and LexisNexis Risk Solutions recently conducted a survey to identify standard practices within the AML community pertaining to AML Risk Assessment and Customer Due Diligence. Preliminary findings were reported at the ACAMS 14th Annual AML and Financial Crimes Conference, September 28-30, 2015. A full report will be published and made available to ACAMS members and survey participants in October 2015.
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