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Exam Code: CCD-410
Exam Name: Cloudera Certified Developer for Apache Hadoop (CCDH)
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Cloudera CCD-410 Bootcamp 60 Q&As
Updated: 11-24,2015
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NO.1 Table metadata in Hive is:
A. Stored as metadata on the NameNode.
B. Stored along with the data in HDFS.
C. Stored in the Metastore.
D. Stored in ZooKeeper.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
By default, hive use an embedded Derby database to store metadata information.
The metastore is the "glue" between Hive and HDFS. It tells Hive where your data files live in
HDFS, what type of data they contain, what tables they belong to, etc.
The Metastore is an application that runs on an RDBMS and uses an open source ORM layer
called DataNucleus, to convert object representations into a relational schema and vice versa.
They chose this approach as opposed to storing this information in hdfs as they need the
Metastore to be very low latency. The DataNucleus layer allows them to plugin many different
RDBMS technologies.
Note:
*By default, Hive stores metadata in an embedded Apache Derby database, and other
client/server databases like MySQL can optionally be used.
*features of Hive include:
Metadata storage in an RDBMS, significantly reducing the time to perform semantic checks during
query execution.
Reference: Store Hive Metadata into RDBMS

NO.2 In a MapReduce job, the reducer receives all values associated with same key. Which statement
best describes the ordering of these values?
A. The values are in sorted order.
B. The values are arbitrarily ordered, and the ordering may vary from run to run of the same
MapReduce job.
C. The values are arbitrary ordered, but multiple runs of the same MapReduce job will always have
the same ordering.
D. Since the values come from mapper outputs, the reducers will receive contiguous sections of
sorted values.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Note:
*Input to the Reducer is the sorted output of the mappers.
*The framework calls the application's Reduce function once for each unique key in the sorted
order.
*Example:
For the given sample input the first map emits:
< Hello, 1>
< World, 1>
< Bye, 1>
< World, 1>
The second map emits:
< Hello, 1>
< Hadoop, 1>
< Goodbye, 1>
< Hadoop, 1>

NO.3 You want to understand more about how users browse your public website, such as which
pages they visit prior to placing an order. You have a farm of 200 web servers hosting your website.
How will you gather this data for your analysis?
A. Ingest the server web logs into HDFS using Flume.
B. Write a MapReduce job, with the web servers for mappers, and the Hadoop cluster nodes for
reduces.
C. Import all users' clicks from your OLTP databases into Hadoop, using Sqoop.
D. Channel these clickstreams inot Hadoop using Hadoop Streaming.
E. Sample the weblogs from the web servers, copying them into Hadoop using curl.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You've written a MapReduce job that will process 500 million input records and generated 500
million key-value pairs. The data is not uniformly distributed. Your MapReduce job will create a
significant amount of intermediate data that it needs to transfer between mappers and reduces
which is a potential bottleneck. A custom implementation of which interface is most likely to reduce
the amount of intermediate data transferred across the network?
A. Partitioner
B. OutputFormat
C. WritableComparable
D. Writable
E. InputFormat
F. Combiner
Answer: F

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Explanation:
Combiners are used to increase the efficiency of a MapReduce program. They are used to aggregate
intermediate map output locally on individual mapper outputs. Combiners can help you reduce the
amount of data that needs to be transferred across to the reducers. You can use your reducer code
as a combiner if the operation performed is commutative and associative.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, What are
combiners? When should I use a combiner in my MapReduce Job?

NO.5 You write MapReduce job to process 100 files in HDFS. Your MapReduce algorithm uses
TextInputFormat: the mapper applies a regular expression over input values and emits key-values
pairs with the key consisting of the matching text, and the value containing the filename and byte
offset. Determine the difference between setting the number of reduces to one and settings the
number of reducers to zero.
A. There is no difference in output between the two settings.
B. With zero reducers, no reducer runs and the job throws an exception. With one reducer, instances
of matching patterns are stored in a single file on HDFS.
C. With zero reducers, all instances of matching patterns are gathered together in one file on HDFS.
With one reducer, instances of matching patterns are stored in multiple files on HDFS.
D. With zero reducers, instances of matching patterns are stored in multiple files on HDFS. With one
reducer, all instances of matching patterns are gathered together in one file on HDFS.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* It is legal to set the number of reduce-tasks to zero if no reduction is desired.
In this case the outputs of the map-tasks go directly to the FileSystem, into the output path set by
setOutputPath(Path). The framework does not sort the map-outputs before writing them out to the
FileSystem.
* Often, you may want to process input data using a map function only. To do this, simply set
mapreduce.job.reduces to zero. The MapReduce framework will not create any reducer tasks.
Rather, the outputs of the mapper tasks will be the final output of the job.
Note:
Reduce
In this phase the reduce(WritableComparable, Iterator, OutputCollector, Reporter) method is
called for each <key, (list of values)> pair in the grouped inputs.
The output of the reduce task is typically written to the FileSystem via
OutputCollector.collect(WritableComparable, Writable).
Applications can use the Reporter to report progress, set application-level status messages and
update Counters, or just indicate that they are alive.
The output of the Reducer is not sorted.

NO.6 To process input key-value pairs, your mapper needs to lead a 512 MB data file in memory.
What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Serialize the data file, insert in it the JobConf object, and read the data into memory in the
configure method of the mapper.
B. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the map method of
the mapper.
C. Place the data file in the DataCache and read the data into memory in the configure method of the
mapper.
D. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the configure method
of the mapper.
Answer: C

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NO.7 On a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), a TaskTracker heartbeats into the JobTracker on
your cluster, and alerts the JobTracker it has an open map task slot.
What determines how the JobTracker assigns each map task to a TaskTracker?
A. The amount of RAM installed on the TaskTracker node.
B. The amount of free disk space on the TaskTracker node.
C. The number and speed of CPU cores on the TaskTracker node.
D. The average system load on the TaskTracker node over the past fifteen (15) minutes.
E. The location of the InsputSplit to be processed in relation to the location of the node.
Answer: E

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Explanation:
The TaskTrackers send out heartbeat messages to the JobTracker, usually every few minutes, to
reassure the JobTracker that it is still alive. These message also inform the JobTracker of the number
of available slots, so the JobTracker can stay up to date with where in the cluster work can be
delegated. When the JobTracker tries to find somewhere to schedule a task within the MapReduce
operations, it first looks for an empty slot on the same server that hosts the DataNode containing the
data, and if not, it looks for an empty slot on a machine in the same rack.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How JobTracker
schedules a task?

NO.8 For each intermediate key, each reducer task can emit:
A. As many final key-value pairs as desired. There are no restrictions on the types of those key-value
pairs (i.e., they can be heterogeneous).
B. As many final key-value pairs as desired, but they must have the same type as the intermediate
key-value pairs.
C. As many final key-value pairs as desired, as long as all the keys have the same type and all the
values have the same type.
D. One final key-value pair per value associated with the key; no restrictions on the type.
E. One final key-value pair per key; no restrictions on the type.
Answer: C

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Reference: Hadoop Map-Reduce Tutorial; Yahoo! Hadoop Tutorial, Module 4: MapReduce


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CCD-410 Study Guide
Begin Your Journey to Developer Certification
This exam focuses on engineering data solutions in MapReduce and understanding the Hadoop ecosystem (including Hive, Pig, Sqoop, Oozie, Crunch, and Flume). Candidates who successfully pass CCD–410 are awarded the Cloudera Certified Hadoop Developer (CCDH) credential.
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NO.1 What does the acronym "CHAP" refer to?
A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol
B. Challenge Handshake Authorization Protocol
C. CLARiiON Handshake Authentication
D. Consistent Host Application Protocol
Answer: A

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NO.2 What will prevent a storage administrator from deleting a storage group?
A. The presence of LUNs in the storage group
B. The presence of MirrorView target LUNs in the storage group
C. The presence of MirrorView source LUNs in the storage group
D. The presence of hosts in the storage group
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which criterion must be met before executing the storage pool -destroy command with Navisphere
secure CLI.
A. Complete removal of all LUNs from the pool
B. Complete removal of unused LUNs from the pool
C. Complete removal of large LUNs from the pool
D. Complete removal of empty LUNs from the pool
Answer: A

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NO.4 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured cloned LUN?
A. The peer SP acquires the feature logs
B. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the feature logs
D. Neither the clone LUN nor the feature logs will be acquired by the peer SP
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a windows server 2003 host,
but the quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share.
C. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings.
Answer: A

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NO.6 At which RAID level are FAST Cache drives configured for VNX arrays?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which RecoverPoint configuration details can be presented in report format when using Data Protection
Advisor.?
A. RPA configuration changes
B. Replication sets
C. Replication lag
D. Link state change
Answer: C

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NO.8 How many storage groups can a host belong to in an array?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-547
Exam Name: VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators
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NO.1 An administrator notices that there is an all paths down (APD) event occurring for the
software FCoE storage.
What is a likely cause?
A. Spanning Tree Protocol is enabled on the network ports.
B. Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled on the network ports.
C. Spanning Tree Protocol is enabled on the storage processors.
D. Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled on the storage processors.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator wishes to provide Load Balanced I/O for the device shown in the Exhibit.
To meet this requirement, which setting should be changed?
A. Storage Array Type Policy = VMW_NMP_RR
B. Path Selection Policy = Round Robin (VMware)
C. Storage Array Type Policy = VMW_SATP_RR
D. Path Selection Policy = MRU (VMware)
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator is writing a kickstart script to upgrade an ESXi 6.x host.
In which three locations can the script reside? (Choose three.)
A. NFS
B. USB
C. HTTP
D. TFTP
E. PXE
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
The Prod-DB virtual machine has a VM Override as shown in the Exhibit.
What step, it taken, would require all virtual machines in the cluster to migrate automatically?
A. Deselect the virtual machine from VM Overrides.
B. Add all virtual machines to the VM Overrides.
C. Change Response for Host Isolation to Use Cluster Settings.
D. Change the Automation level to Use Cluster Settings.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator has configured Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) groups and Affinity Rules as
shown in the Exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If ESXi-A and ESXi-D failed, VM-A and VM-B would not failover.
B. A new conflicting affinity rule will be disabled by default.
C. VM-B and VM-D can run on the same hosts.
D. The administrator must disable Rule3 in order to enable Rule4.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Refer to the Exhibit.
-- Exhibit --
An administrator has created the DRS cluster shown in the Exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. Under CPU contention, Prod-VM1 receives four times the CPU resources than TestVM1.
B. The Prod-VM1 will always have more CPU resources than all other virtual machines.
C. The Test-VM2 will always have less CPU resources than all other virtual machines.
D. Under CPU contention, Test-VM1 will receive 25% of the total CPU resources.
Answer: A

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NO.7 An administrator notices that the time on an ESXi 6.x host is incorrect.
Which two actions should the administrator take to correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Modify the time for the host using the vSphere client.
B. Correct the NTP settings in the /etc/ntp.conf file.
C. Configure NTP from the Direct Console User Interface.
D. Use the vicfg-ntp command from the vSphere Management Appliance.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 After deploying a vSphere Platform Services Controller (PSC), an administrator is unable to
install vCenter Server. The error displayed is:
Could not contact Lookup Service. Please check VM_ssoreg.log.
Which two actions can be taken to correct this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the clocks on the host machines running the PSC, vCenter Server, and the vSphere Web
Client are synchronized.
B. Configure a valid Identity Source for the Platform Services Controller in the vSphere Web Client.
C. Ensure that there is no firewall blocking port 7444 between the PSC and vCenter Server.
D. Uninstall and reinstall the Platform Services Controller software.
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 2V0-621
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Red Hat Certifications

Red Hat’s performance-based certifications are among the most highly regarded in the IT industry. A Red Hat certification means you have proven your skills by passing a performance-based test of the tasks you need to perform your job.
Prove Your Skills, Not Just Your Knowledge
Red Hat certifications prove that you have mastered key tasks for Red Hat Enterprise Linux, Red Hat JBoss Middleware, Red Hat Enterprise Virtualization, and more. Organizations hiring employees, contractors, and consultants can look to Red Hat certifications as input while making hiring, assignment, promotion, and other management decisions. Similarly, individuals who earn these certifications benefit by having official, impartial validation of their skills and knowledge.
See details and descriptions for all of the certification exams you can access at Red Hat Summit below and don’t forget all our 4-hour exams are 50% off MSRP and offered as Individual Exam Sessions. You can register for all certification exams when you complete your conference registration.
NO.1 Add 3 users: harry, natasha, tom.
The requirements: The Additional group of the two users: harry, Natasha is the admin group. The user:
tom's login shell should be non-interactive.
Answer:
# useradd -G admin harry
# useradd -G admin natasha
# useradd -s /sbin/nologin tom
# id harry;id Natasha (Show additional group)
# cat /etc/passwd
(Show the login shell)
OR
# system-config-users

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NO.2 Configure your Host Name, IP Address, Gateway and DNS.
Host name: station.domain40.example.com
/etc/sysconfig/network
hostname=abc.com
hostname abc.com
IP Address:172.24.40.40/24
Gateway172.24.40.1
DNS:172.24.40.1
Answer:
# cd /etc/syscofig/network-scripts/
# ls
# vim ifcfg-eth0 (Configure IP Address, Gateway and DNS) IPADDR=172.24.40.40
GATEWAY=172.24.40.1
DNS1=172.24.40.1
# vim /etc/sysconfig/network
(Configure Host Name)
HOSTNAME= station.domain40.example.com
OR
Graphical Interfaces:
System->Preference->Network Connections (Configure IP Address, Gateway and DNS) Vim
/etc/sysconfig/network
(Configure Host Name)

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Exam Code: EX200
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C_HANAIMP142 SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP HANA (Edition 2014)

Solution: SAP HANA
Delivery Methods: Certification
Duration: 180
Level: Associate
Exam: - 80 questions, PDF Link, Cut Score 61
Languages: English, Japanese

Data Provisioning > 12%
Optimization of Data Models and Reporting 8% - 12%
Security and Authorization 8% - 12%
Data modeling - Analytical views 8% - 12%
Data modeling - Calculation views 8% - 12%
Advanced data modeling 8% - 12%
Administration of data models 8% - 12%
Reporting < 8%
Data modeling - SQL Script < 8%
Data modeling - Attribute views < 8%
Deployment scenarios of SAP HANA < 8%
SAP HANA Live & Rapid Deployment Solutions for SAP HANA < 8%
NO.1 User A has to set up tables and views in a database schema that is owned by user B.
Which of the following privilege must you grant?
A. CREATE ANY to user A
B. REFERENCES to user A
C. CREATE ANY to user B
D. REFERENCES to user B
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are using SAP BusinessObjects Data Services as your ETL tool.
What is the next step required after you have created the DataStore and imported the metadata
from an SAP ERP system into SAP HANA?
A. Import data from the SAP ERP system into SAP HANA.
B. Create an SAP BusinessObjects Data Services job to migrate data to SAP HANA.
C. Import the metadata from SAP HANA into SAP BusinessObjects Data Services.
D. Create a connection in SAP BusinessObjects Data Services to the SAP ERP system.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When building a business layer to report on SAP HANA, what do you have to do if you want to
display more than 5,000 rows?
A. Remove all filters from the analytic views.
B. Deactivate the Limit Size of Result Set parameter in the Central Management Console.
C. Set the Array Fetch Size parameter to the maximum in the relational connection.
D. Deactivate the Limit Size of Result Set parameter in the business layer.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You want to create a graphical calculation view using the SAP HANA studio. Which steps are
mandatory for this task? (Choose three)
A. Define a projection.
B. Write an SQL script.
C. Save and activate the view.
D. Define output fields.
E. Choose a data source.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 What is the lowest level of granularity you can use in an analytic privilege?
A. A view
B. A column
C. An attribute value
D. An attribute
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which types of calendar are available for time attribute views in SAP HANA? (Choose two)
A. Fiscal
B. Factory
C. Gregorian
D. Julian
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 You have made modifications to an information model within a delivery unit. You want to
export the model to an SAP HANA target system.
In the Schema Mapping dialog, where do you define the target system schema?
A. In the Authorization schema
B. In the Authoring schema
C. In the _SYS_BI schema
D. In the Physical schema
Answer: D

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NO.8 In SAP ERP there are more than 50,000 application tables. How do you determine the relevant
SAP ERP tables to replicate in SAP HANA and their dependencies?
A. Use SAP ERP Data Modeler (transaction SD11).
B. Use SAP ERP ABAP Dictionary Maintenance (transaction SE11).
C. Use the SAP ERP Tables and Indexes Monitor(transaction DB02).
D. Use SAP ERP Data Browser (transaction SE16).
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C_HANAIMP142
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP HANA (Edition 2014)
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Exam Code: C_TERP10_65
Exam Name: SAP Certified - Associate Business Foundation & Integration with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5
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Exam Code: JN0-343
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NO.1 What are two valid BPDU types? (Choose two.)
A. topology change notification
B. configuration change
C. configuration
D. root bridge
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 When processing inbound Ethernet frames, which firewall filter is evaluated first by an EX Series
switch?
A. port filter
B. VLAN filter
C. trunk filter
D. route filter
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which configuration disables a port when more than 30,000 Kbps of broadcast traffic is received over
an aggregated Ethernet interface with two member links?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which OSPF LSA type is sent by all routers in an area to advertise its connected subnets?
A. router
B. network
C. external
D. summary
Answer: A

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NO.5 Given the following output, what has been configured for the 192.168.3.0/24 prefix?
A. per-flow load balancing
B. a floating static route
C. per-packet load balancing
D. a qualified next hop
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement describes the default Junos OS behavior for OSPF?
A. External LSAs are advertised in a stub area.
B. An ABR does not announce a default route into a stub area.
C. Stub area internal routers generate a default route.
D. Only totally stubby areas need a default route.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which command correctly assigns AS 65432 as the local router's autonomous system?
A. set protocols bgp local-as 65432
B. set routing-options local-as 65432
C. set protocols bgp autonomous-system 65432
D. set routing-options autonomous-system 65432
Answer: D

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NO.8 How much overhead does the GRE header add to an IPv4 packet?
A. 24 bytes
B. 32 bytes
C. 48 bytes
D. 64 bytes
Answer: A

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INTRODUCTION:
The CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] certification is a vendor neutral credential. In order to receive CompTIA Linux+ certification, a candidate must pass two exams. The second exam is CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] exam number LX0-104. This exam measures the remaining competencies (beyond those in exam number LX0-103) required by a junior level Linux administrator, as described in the exam objectives below.
The successful junior level Linux administrator should be able to:
o Work at the Linux command line;
o Perform easy maintenance tasks including assisting users, adding users to a larger system, executing backup & restore, shutdown & reboot;
Exam Code: LX0-104
Exam Name: CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] - Exam 2
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Exam Code: N10-006
Exam Name: CompTIA Network+ certification
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NO.1 A technician recently ran a 20-meter section of CAT6 to relocate a control station to a more
central area on the production floor. Since the relocation, the helpdesk has received complaints
about intermittent operation. During the troubleshooting process, the technician noticed that
collisions are only observed on the switch port during production. Given this information, which of
the following is the cause of the problem?
A. Distance limitation
B. Electromagnetic interference
C. Cross talk
D. Speed and duplex mismatch
Answer: B

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NO.2 A technician needs to secure web traffic for a new e-commerce website. Which of the
following will secure traffic between a web browser and a website?
A. SSL
B. DNSSEC
C. WPA2
D. MTU
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company has had several virus infections over the past few months.
The infections were caused by vulnerabilities in the application versions that are being used.
Which of the following should an administrator implement to prevent future outbreaks?
A. Host-based intrusion detection systems
B. Acceptable use policies
C. Incident response team
D. Patch management
Answer: D

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NO.4 A network technician has been assigned to install an additional router on a wireless network.
The router has a different SSID and frequency. All users on the new access point and the main
network can ping each other and utilize the network printer, but all users on the new router cannot
get to the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. The gateway is misconfigured on the new router.
B. The subnet mask is incorrect on the new router.
C. The gateway is misconfigured on the edge router.
D. The SSID is incorrect on the new router.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A technician has verified that a recent loss of network connectivity to multiple workstations is
due to a bad CAT5 cable in the server room wall. Which of the following tools can be used to locate
its physical location within the wall?
A. Cable certifier
B. Multimeter
C. Cable tester
D. Toner probe
Answer: D

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NO.6 A network administrator has created a virtual machine in the cloud. The technician would like
to connect to the server remotely using RDP. Which of the following default ports needs to be
opened?
A. 445
B. 3389
C. 5004
D. 5060
Answer: B

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NO.7 An administrator has a virtualization environment that includes a vSAN and iSCSI switching.
Which of the following actions could the administrator take to improve the performance of data
transfers over iSCSI switches?
A. The administrator should configure the switch ports to auto-negotiate the proper Ethernet
settings.
B. The administrator should configure each vSAN participant to have its own VLAN.
C. The administrator should connect the iSCSI switches to each other over inter-switch links (ISL).
D. The administrator should set the MTU to 9000 on the each of the participants in the vSAN.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A company is deploying a new wireless network and requires 800Mbps network throughput.
Which of the following is the MINIMUM configuration that would meet this need?
A. 802.11ac with 2 spatial streams and an 80MHz bandwidth
B. 802.11ac with 3 spatial streams and a 20MHz bandwidth
C. 802.11ac with 3 spatial streams and a 40MHz bandwidth
D. 802.11ac with 4 spatial streams and a 160MHz bandwidth
Answer: A
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Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions (beta)
Exam 70-533
Objectives:
Languages: English
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft Azure
Credit toward certification: MCP, Microsoft Specialist
Design Microsoft Azure infrastructure and networking (15–20%)
Secure resources (15–20%)
Design an application storage and data access strategy (15–20%)
Design an advanced application (15–20%)
Design websites (15–20%)
NO.1 You are evaluating an Azure application. The application includes the following elements:
- A web role that provides the ASP.NET user interface and business logic
- A single SQL database that contains all application data
Each webpage must receive data from the business logic layer before returning results to the client.
Traffic has increased significantly. The business logic is causing high CPU usage.
You need to recommend an approach for scaling the application.
What should you recommend?
A. Store the business logic results in Azure Table storage.
B. Vertically partition the SQL database.
C. Move the business logic to a worker role.
D. Store the business logic results in Azure local storage.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
For Cloud Services in Azure applications need both web and worker roles to scale well.
Reference: Application Patterns and Development Strategies for SQL Server in Azure Virtual Machine
s
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dn574746.aspx

NO.2 You are designing an Azure application that will use a worker role. The worker role will create
temporary files.
You need to minimize storage transaction charges.
Where should you create the files?
A. In Azure local storage
B. In Azure Storage page blobs
C. On an Azure Drive
D. In Azure Storage block blobs
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Local storage is temporary in Azure. So, if the virtual machine supporting your role dies and cannot
recover, your local storage is lost!
Therefore, Azure developers will tell you, only volatile data should ever be stored in local storage of
Azure.
Reference: Windows Azure Local File Storage How To Guide And Warnings
http://www.intertech.com/Blog/windows-azure-local-file-storage-how-to-guide-andwarnings/
Reference: http://blog.codingoutloud.com/2011/06/12/azure-faq-can-i-write-to-the-filesystem-on-
windows-azure/

NO.3 You are the administrator for a company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso also has an Azure subscription and uses many on-premises Active Directory products as roles
in Windows Server including the following:
- Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)
- Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS)
- Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)
- Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS)
- Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
Contoso must use the directory management services available in Azure Active Directory.
You need to provide information to Contoso on the similarities and differences between Azure Active
Directory and the Windows Server Active Directory family of services.
Which feature does Azure Active Directory and on-premises Active Directory both support?
A. Using the GraphAPI to query the directory
B. Issuing user certificates
C. Supporting single sign-on (SSO)
D. Querying the directory with LDAP
Answer: C

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Explanation:
AD FS supports Web single-sign-on (SSO) technologies, and so does Azure Active Directory.
If you want single sign on we usually suggest using ADFS if you're a Windows shop. Going forward
though, Azure Active Directory is another alternative you can use.
Reference: Using Azure Active Directory for Single Sign On with Yammer
https://samlman.wordpress.com/2015/03/02/using-azure-active-directory-for-single-sign-onwith-
yammer/

NO.4 You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different
geographic locations.
The service locations may change.
You must minimize the cost of communication between services.
You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure
services.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The cost of ACS transactions is insignificant when performing messaging operations against Service
Bus queues.
Service Bus acquires one ACS token per a single instance of the messaging factory object.
The token is then reused until it expires, after about 20 minutes.
Therefore, the volume of messaging operations in Service Bus is not directly proportional to the
amount of ACS transactions required to support these operations.
Reference: Azure Queues and Service Bus Queues - Compared and Contrasted
https://msdn.microsoft.com/library/azure/hh767287.aspx

NO.5 Contoso, Ltd., uses Azure websites for public-facing customer websites. The company has a
mobile app that requires customers sign in by using a Contoso customer account.
Customers must be able to sign on to the websites and mobile app by using a Microsoft, Facebook, or
Google account. All transactions must be secured in-transit regardless of device.
You need to configure the websites and mobile app to work with external identity providers.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Request a certificate from a domain registrar for the website URL, and enable TLS/SSL.
B. Configure IPsec for the websites and the mobile app.
C. Configure the KerberosTokenProfile 1.1 protocol.
D. Configure OAuth2 to connect to an external authentication provider.
E. Build an app by using MVC 5 that is hosted in Azure to provide a framework for the underlying
authentication.
Answer: A,D,E

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Explanation:
DE: This tutorial shows you how to build an ASP.NET MVC 5 web application that enables users to log
in using OAuth 2.0 with credentials from an external authentication provider, such as Facebook,
Twitter, LinkedIn, Microsoft, or Google.
A:
*You will now be redirected back to the Register page of the MvcAuth application where you can
register your Google account.
You have the option of changing the local email registration name used for your Gmail account, but
you generally want to keep the default email alias (that is, the one you used for authentication).
Click Register.
*To connect to authentication providers like Google and Facebook, you will need to set up IIS-Express
to use SSL.
Reference: Code! MVC 5 App with Facebook, Twitter, LinkedIn and Google OAuth2 Sign-on (C#)
http://www.asp.net/mvc/overview/security/create-an-aspnet-mvc-5-app-with-facebook-andgoogle-
oauth2-and-openid-sign-on

NO.6 You are designing an Azure web application. The solution will be used by multiple customers.
Each customer has different business logic and user interface requirements.
Not all customers use the same version of the .NET runtime.
You need to recommend a deployment strategy.
What should you recommend?
A. Deploy with multiple web role instances.
B. Deploy each application in a separate tenant.
C. Deploy all applications in one tenant.
D. Deploy with multiple worker role instances.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
There are two types of tenant environments. The simplest type is a single-tenant application where
one customer has 100% dedicated access to an application's process space. A single Tenant
Applications has a separate, logical instance of the application for each customer or client. A single
tenant application is much more predictable and stable by its nature since there will never be more
than one dedicated customer at any point in time in that VM. That customer has all of its users
accessing that dedicated instance of the application.
Reference: Multi Tenancy and Windows Azure. Overview of Multi tenant Application and Single
tenant Application Architectural considerations.
http://sanganakauthority.blogspot.in/2011/12/multi-tenancy-and-windows-azure.html

NO.7 You are designing a solution that will interact with non-Windows applications over unreliable
network connections.
You have a security token for each non-Windows application.
You need to ensure that non-Windows applications retrieve messages from the solution.
Where should you retrieve messages?
A. An Azure Queue
B. The Azure Service Bus Queue
C. An Azure blob storage container that has a private access policy
D. Azure Table storage
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Any Microsoft or non-Microsoft applications can use a Service Bus REST
API to manage and access messaging entities over HTTPS.
By using REST applications based on non-Microsoft technologies (e.g. Java, Ruby, etc.)
are allowed not only to send and receive messages from the Service Bus, but also to
create or delete queues, topics and subscription in a given namespace.
: Service Bus Explorer
https://code.msdn.microsoft.com/windowsazure/service-bus-explorer-f2abca5a


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Exam Code: 070-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
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Exam Number: 1Z0-133 / 1Z0-133
Duration: 120 minutes
Associated Certifications: Oracle Certified Associate, Oracle WebLogic Server 12c Administrator
Number of Questions: 77
Exam Product Version: WebLogic Server,
Passing Score: 64%
Exam Price: US$ 150
Validated Against:
This exam is validated against 12c.


format: Multiple Choice
NO.1 You are building a new 12c cluster to accommodate the upcoming projects.You arecurrently
working with the networkadmin team to define the requirementsneeded. Currently, thenetworkteam
wouldlike to get cleared on the protocols beingused by the various network interface needed. Which
three statements about Clusterware communication are correct?
A. For the public network, each network adapter must support TCP/IP. This requirement holds true
for both Microsoft Windows and Linux/Unix environments
B. For the private network, the interface must support the user datagram protocol (UDP) using high
speed network adapters and switches that support TCP/IP. This holds true inthe Linux/Unix
environment.
C. For the publicnetwork, each network adapter needs tosupport only UDP, which provides
lowlatency.This requirement holds true for both MicrosoftWindows and Linux/Unixenvironments
D. For the private network,thenetworkadapters must use high-speed network adapters and switches
that support TCP/IP. This requirement holds true inthe Microsoft Windows environment
E. There is no mandatory requirement for the protocol being supported for bothprivate and public
interfaces.Oracle RAC andClusterware aulomatically detect and support any current standard
industry protocol
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Which statement about Oracle Flex ASM is incorrect?
A. Oracle Flex ASM enables an Oracle ASM instance to run on a separate physical server
from the databaseservers.
B. With Flex ASM, a smaller pool of ASM instances can be used to serve a large pool of database
servers.
C. Flex ASM requires the configuration of Flex Clusters.
D. Flex ASM can be configured on either a standard cluster or a Flex Cluster.
E. Higher availability can be achieved with Flex ASM because if an ASM instance fails, its clients can
reconnect to another ASM instance
Answer: C

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NO.3 Oracle 12cR1 Flex Cluster introduces a new topology, which allows for a higher level of
scalability. Which four statements accurately describe the new topology's properties?
A. Hub and Leaf topologies allow tightly and loosely coupled server membership
B. Hub and Leaf topologies supportimplicit Server Pools.
C. Leaf servers are standard as in previousversions.
D. Leaf servers arelight-weight, no shared storage, no peer-to-peer communication and
dedicatedtoapplication service.
E. Hub servers do not support Oracle ASM.
F. Oracle Flex Cluster 12cR1 supports bare metal and OVM serversincommon cluster
Answer: A,B,D,F

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NO.4 In a clustered Oracle ASM environment, a diskgroup is mounted in restricted mode. Which
statement is correct?
A. You can mount the disk group on all the nodes.
B. You can issue any command, as long as you are using the force option.
C. You can open the database located on this disk group only in standalone mode.
D. You can open the database on this disk group only in restricted mode.
E. You know that nobody is using the disk group, so you can perform a fast rebalancing on the disk
group.
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which are the correct steps required to discover targets manually, using Oracle Enterprise
Manager Cloud Control 12c?
A. Enterprise > Configuration > Search
B. Targets > All Targets > Configure
C. Setup > Manage CloudControl > Management Services
D. Setup > Add Target > Add Targets Manually
E. Setup > Discover Targets > Add Targets Manually
Answer: D

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NO.6 Arrange the following steps for converting from DNS to GNS inthe proper order:
------
Start GNS.
Configure GNS resource.
Update database endpoint
Remove static addresses so only dynamic addresses are used.
Change the CRS resource to support mixed mode.
Modify the registered SCAN.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. 6, 5,4,3,2, 1
C. 2, 1,5, 6,3,4
D. 4, 3, 6, 5, 1, 2
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which three statements accurately describe the components of the Cluster Ready Services
Technology Stack?
A. Cluster Ready Services(CRS):Aspecialized oraagent process that helps CRSD manage resources
owned by rootsuch as the network, and theGrid virtual IP address
B. Cluster Synchronization Services (CSS):Manages the cluster configuration by controlling which
nodes are members of the cluster and by notifying members when a node joins or leaves the cluster
C. Cluster Time Synchronization Service (CTSS): A background process that publishes events that
Oracle Clusterware creates.
D. Event Management (EVM). Provides time managementinacluster for Orade Clusterware
E. Grid Naming Service (GNS):Handles requests sent by external DNS servers, performing name
resolution fornames defined by the cluster.
F. Oracle Agent (oraagent): This process was known as RACG in Oracle Clusterware 11gR1 (11.1).
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.8 You are given the task of managing an Oracle RAC 12cR1 Cluster by using Oracle Flex
ASM.Which two statements are valid?
A. A failure of an ASM instance affects the databases, evenif youare using ASM disk groups
B. A failure of an ASM instance affects availability for the databases using ASM disk groups due to
decreased cardinality of available ASM instances
C. To determine whether Oracle Flex ASMis enabled, use asmcmdshowclustermode
D. When deployed,Oracle Flex ASM enables an Oracle ASM instance to run on a separate physical
server from the database server
Answer: A,D

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Exam Name: Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: Administration I
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Test information:

• Number of questions: 39
• Time allowed in minutes: 60
• Required passing score: 62%
• Test languages: English

Related certifications:

• IBM Certified Associate System Administrator - AIX 7

NO.1 How will the following command change the datalv logical volume?
chlv -e m datalv
A. The logical volume will be encrypted with the key in a file named "m".
B. The logical volume will be rebalanced across the maximum physical volumes immediately.
C. The logical volume will have new logical partitions spread across as few disks as possible.
D. The logical volume will be rebalanced across the minimum number of physical volumes
immediately
Answer: C

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NO.2 A host has a single virtual Ethernet adapter (ent0) configured with only a default PVID, and
the administrator is trying to determine why it cannot be used to reach any other system on the
network. He suspects that it may be caused by a problem in the VLAN configuration.
How would the administrator determine the VLAN for which the adapter was configured?
A. Use the command 'Isdev -I ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
B. Use the command 'Isattr-EI ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
C. Look on the HMC to determine which VLAN is configured for the adapter.
D. Examine the Shared Ethernet Adapter on the Virtual I/O Server to determine which VLAN the
adapter is using.
Answer: C

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NO.3 With regard to GLVM mirroring, which of the following is a true statement?
A. Mirrored locations are limited to being 254 miles apart
B. Data mirroring is performed over standard TCP/IP networks
C. GLVM requires any hosted database applications to be mirror-tolerant.
D. Production and backup sites must use the exact same model of IBM Power System server
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is a requirement for a concurrent firmware update on a Power Systems
server?
A. The firmware must be upgraded to a new release.
B. The Power Systems server must have a redundant FSP .
C. The Power Systems server must be managed by an HMC.
D. The primary partition must have all system resources assigned.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The/app1 filesystem in appvg did not mount due to a failure replaying jfslog1. Which
command will reinitialize jfslog1?
A. resysnclvodm -vjfslog1
B. logform/dev/jfsiog1
C. synclvodm appvg jfslog1
D. format-d/dev/jfslog1
Answer: B

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NO.6 When attempting to connect to a remote system, a long delay is experienced before the login
prompt is displayed. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The /etc/resolv.conf file on the remote system is missing.
B. The /etc/resolv.conf file on the remote system has an invalid entry.
C. The /etc/hosts file on the remote system does not have an entry for itself.
D. The /etc/hosts file on the remote system has an invalid hostname listed for itself.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which action will temporarily disable remote login access using telnet and ssh for all non-root
accounts?
A. Update /etc/security/passwd and recycle the inetd subsystem.
B. Stop the sshd subsystem.
C. Create a/etc/nologin file.
D. Set the PermitLogins parameter in /etc/ssh/sshd_config and recycle the sshd daemon.
E. Touch the /etc/sshd/nologin file and recycle the sshd daemon.
Answer: C

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NO.8 After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the
correct Technology Level (TL). What action will help the administrator determine why the
inconsistent fileset levels were installed?
A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.
B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.
C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.
D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the
lpp_source.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C4040-227
Exam Name: Associate AIX 7 Administration
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